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Jul 16, 2006

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Interesting how the Fed. Cir here says participating in the US federal patent process is commercial activity such that a foreign company avails itself of suit in federal court.

Yet, the Supreme Court in the State-based 11th Amendment cases does not see it that way. Simply participating in the federal patent system is not commercial activity sufficient to sue the state in federal court.

A dichotomy based on the text of the 11th Amendment or other constitutional provision? Or is it that the FSIA has no constitutional background per se and is a creature of statute, whereas state-immunity is constitutional based.

This is good to know. If it stands, this judgment essentially means that patents in the U.S. are closed to all foreign entities unless those entities are willing to definitely assert that they are engaging in “commerce.” That seems to me a very dicey proposition. Besides the fact that it gives American companies a certain degree of leverage, it also asserts the centrality of the American patent office by assuming that patents in the U.S. are necessarily bound for commerce. In other words, a patent in the U.S. is something akin to a stamp of commercial approval. I’m curious: is there any case law that might involve the opposite assertion – specifically, that an American company had violated a foreign company’s patent?

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