McDonnell Boehnen Hulbert & Berghoff LLP

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Aug 01, 2007

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I don't know much more difficult a more general law would have been. Isn't the Commerce Clause argument in the opinion pretty much cut and paste?

FOR THE PURPOSE OF THE SETTLEMENT OF SUCH DIPUTE,THE STATE LAW MAY NOT INTERPRET WITH THE FEDERAL LAW.

Is this correctly decided? The argument is that the patent law grants exclusivity, and because the Feds have chosen not to regulate it it is unlimited in its upside? I don't think that is correct. The Feds (and if they don't, the states) have the right to limit the amount of exclusivity granted in a patent - from term length to laws and rules about grant - TO LIMITING THE COST of the exclusive right to SOCIETY!

"by offering exclusive rights that allow for above market pricing during the term of the patent" - where is that in the Constituion, the Patent Laws, the CFR, or even the sily USPTO rules and the MPEP? Exactly nowhere...wrong decision. That may be the outcome of the grant of right, but nowhere is it a requirement of the grant, and thus can be limited.

>>by offering exclusive rights that allow for above market pricing during the term of the patent" - where is that in the Constituion, the Patent Laws, the CFR, or even the sily USPTO rules and the MPEP? Exactly nowhere...wrong decision. That may be the outcome of the grant of right, but nowhere is it a requirement of the grant, and thus can be limited.<<<

I think it was correctly decided. The price control measure would have frustrated the goal of granting exclusive rights. If you are granted exclusive rights but cannot price your product at an above-market price, what good is the exclusivity?

I would agree George, but can't you limit how high is too high? I think you can. I am not arguing this legislation was not silly and essentially unenforceable, but a better written Federal Law would be overturned based on the decision breadth, and I don't think that is correct.

I think the Fed Circuit's argument would have been more convincing (and cogent) had it explicitly invoked the commerce clause in its decision: Congress chose to encourage interstate commerce by granting patenting; DC's limiting prices on patented drugs interferes with that scheme and thus is impermissible.

Could the CAFC have invoked the commerce clause and still maintained jurisdiction of this case? since it would not have thus risen out of the patent code?

It seems improbable that Congress - Rep or Dem - will do anything about overpricing while lobbyists go unchecked - even with the new rules - which are full of loopholes. Patents should promote research and innovation, but not at the expense of public health.

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