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Jul 09, 2008

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"Reverse Doctrine of Equivalents Remains Dead"

While true at the CAFC, I wonder: has it been successfully employed at the district court level in the past 25 years?

I hope not. But I wouldn't be surprised if it had.

It would be nice if the CAFC would simply kill the reverse doctrine, as obsolete and unnecessary. I can't conceive of an instance where the reverse doctrine would be "needed" to avoid infringement. In every case where the reverse doctrine could be applied, a proper claim construction or invalidation by failure to enable would seem to apply with equal force.

"a proper claim construction or invalidation by failure to enable would seem to apply with equal force"

no kidding. courts are more than willing to bend over backwards to bend over unsympathetic, overreaching plaintiffs, either by limiting claim construction to prevent infringement or (more often that in the past) invalidating claims for failing to enable "the full breadth of" their scope, even in arts other than the traditional "unpredictable arts"

Malcolm,

The CAFC can't "simply kill" the RDOE, as it comes out of S. Ct. cases. The CAFC has gone as far as it can by basically signalling that if the RDOE is all you've got, save yourself the litigation costs and settle.

Indeed, given Westinghouse and Graver Tank, the Federal Circuit may already have pushed the envelope on RDOE a little too far. I would not be surprised if this was the next area that gets certiorari petitions.

A "pro-patentee bias" - by a broader application of "issue preclusion"?

Isn't a "reduced judicial workload bias" just as plausable?

[Also, the facts of this case did not even make it to first base for an application of the RDOE.]

"The CAFC can't "simply kill" the RDOE, as it comes out of S. Ct. cases."

Is the RDOE grounded in the Constitution? Isn't that stuff in Graver Tank mere dicta? If any event, there's been a lot of water under the bridge since 1950.

I think the CAFC can and should declare it dead and then it is dead until the Supreme Court says otherwise, which I don't see happening ... ever.

"I think the CAFC can and should declare it dead and then it is dead until the Supreme Court says otherwise, which I don't see happening ... ever."

From my very limited experience with the SCOTUS it seems that if the Fed Circ were to do such a thing then they'd have their hands free to do just about anything they felt like. The concept of common law would be meaningless, and the problems surrounding 101 would suddenly vanish because all of the "old" cases could simply be declared moot. Of course, if it really is just dicta then perhaps this could happen, but then, it seems well established that it is not mere dicta. It is well established by the fact that courts have been hearing arguments based on the RDOE since the 50's. It seems like it is here to stay to me.

I would rather see a the RDoE applied than a Liebel-Flarsheim type invalidation.

Mooney, Graver Tank is arguably dicta, but Westinghouse v. Boyden Power Brake Co., 170 U.S. 537 (1898) is not. And yes a lot has happened since 1898, but the Supreme Court has not taken kindly to suggestions that its patent law precedent expired in 1982 with the Federal Courts Improvement Act. See, e.g., Warner-Jenkinson, Festo, KSR.

"the Supreme Court has not taken kindly to suggestions that its patent law precedent expired in 1982 with the Federal Courts Improvement Act. See, e.g., Warner-Jenkinson, Festo, KSR."

The difference between the doctrines in those cases and the RDOE is that the RDOE is ultrasuperstoopid. In fact, the main reason the Supremes took Festo was to provide momentum for the detoothing of the DOE, which is merely a very silly doctrine. You think they are going to allow their lips to resuscitate the ultrasuperstoopid corpse of the RDOE, just to teach the CAFC a lesson about how awesome their 1898 patent jurisprudence was? I doubt it.

Same with Morse's alleged "signal" claims.


The Supreme Court's aversion to ultrasuperstoopidity might not be as strong as you think it is.

Actually, Malcolm, I think the Hilton-Davis and Festo cases mean the exact opposite. The CAFC was going in the direction of detoothing the DOE just fine until Hilton-Davis, when the Supremes said that 1) the DOE is here to stay; 2) there is no rigid formula for applying it; and 3) they are willing to let the CAFC develop case law on how much the doctrine is circumscribed by prosecution history estoppel. When the CAFC came back and said PHE destroys DOE for every amendment for any reason, the Supremes came back and said, YES, PHE is not limited to 102/103 art/amendments/argument, but NO, the estoppel is not to be applied in the draconian manner adopted by the CAFC.

The fact is that the SC, at least this SC, is unwilling to cede any of its prerogatives or precedent, even if dicta, to the CAFC. You may be right that whether they granted cert would depend on the facts of the case, but they have shown no inclination to let the CAFC step on their judicial toes.

To Lionel Hutz: Seen from outside the USA, Liebel brings a dose of common sense. I can imagine why you as a patent lawyer are against it, but is it decisive to society what a patent attorney desires? The idea that you get a scope of monopoly commensurate with what you have enabled is something even a layman (everybody except the patent bar) can grasp. The concept that "a claim means what its skilled technical reader would take it to mean" is another concept graspable beyond the patent bar. Now the RDOI is also a concept, but whether it's graspable beyond the patent bar, I do sometimes wonder. Do we want a clean and simple, coherent patent law in the USA. Or do we not?

"The idea that you get a scope of monopoly commensurate with what you have enabled is something even a layman (everybody except the patent bar) can grasp."

We understand enablement. It was the slippery slope that we feared: a process in which courts would (without facts relating to whether inventors tried to create a device without an originally claimed, but later-removed element), note that the specification described an element that is not recited in claim, and then hold the claim didn't enable the full scope of the claim because it read on "element-less" systems.

Liebel would have made much more sense as a written description case (or new matter case for you EPO guys).

Well, I, for one, think that the RDOE is cool. It's so arcane, even in the arcane world of patent law. It's kinda like the appendix...we know it exists, but for what purpose?

Years ago I wrote an opinion in which I actually applied the RDOE! Of course, that wasn't the only basis for FTO, but it was interesting to apply the law to the facts to see how the RDOE logic really played out. As you can imagine, it was an extremely rare fact pattern v. patent claims.

Max,

By the logic of Liebel-Flarsheim, If I enable an engine and someone adapts my engine (but not even arguably outside the scope of my claims) to an automobile, My claims should be invalidated because I did not enable the use of it with an automobile.

In Liebel-Flarsheim, the defendant's device clearly infringed the claims. The idea that because the defendant managed to adapt them to a new use should not invalidate the claims the Plaintiff obtained.

BTW, I am not saying the Plaintiff should have won, just that the logic in the opinion was terrible

Written description would have been a better basis for a decision in LF.

Kevin, that's an interesting perspective and you may be onto something. We'll see how deeply the Supremes care about O'Reilly v. Morse (1853) when they punt on Nuijten.

Various current CAFC panels have come up with more than enough other ways to read patent claims far more narrowly than their literal scope such that it seems hard to imagine any further need for the RDOE?
But is the RDOE still theoretically possible for a patent claim to an invention in one technology that, by unintended accident, reads (if read literally) on a later product in a completely different technology? {However rarely that might ever occur?}

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