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Oct 13, 2009

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Without even reading the cases, I would note that since the one patent owner cannot sue without joining the other patent owner, how can there be a serious "threat" to sue unless the threat is signed by all patent owners or a representative of all patent owners?

There should be no case and controversy here.

Ned - A few years ago, your comments would be on-point. In MedImmune, however, the Supreme Court eliminated the apprehension of suit test and killed the notion that a DJ action is only available if the right-holder could have sued on the merits.

I understand, Dennis. But still my point somewhat remains valid. There is no serious threat to sue.

So what do we have? X patent owner sends Y a notice of infringement. Y sues X for a declaration of invalidity, but cannot join Z, X's co-owner. What can the court decide? It cannot decide the patent is invalid? If it did, the patent claims held invalid would effectively be cancelled from the patent. But since Z is not joined, that would be fricken unconstitutional IMHO.

There is something seriously wrong here. Think about it.

Just because there is no serious "legal" threat to sue, that doesn't stop a joint owner of a patent of making "business" threats.

Anon, true. But what remedy can the district court give? He cannot declare the patent invalid without the other owners. Any judgment of "non infringement" woul be advisory only as it would not bind the absent owner.

"Although prudential requirements do not allow a patentee to sue for infringement without joining co-owners"

Where does this come from?

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